As you may know, 40MHz mode in 2.4GHz is recommended by many people only for those who live in a rural setting. The 40MHz mode means your WiFi is using 2/3 of the entire 2.4GHz band, and you compete with neighbors' WiFi for air time.
Agree.. but the WiFi Alliance seemingly pushed for 40MHz mode, which leads to a 6dB disadvantage over 20MHz mode due to the noise*bandwidth product (laws of physics). But worse, the wider banwidth on the receiver side invites far more interference from other 20MHz systems.
I wonder, for 4 stream routers, is it possible to use 60MHz of the 2.4GHz band, if not, then will they ever get around to allowing routers to simply take advantage of all 11 channels at the same time?
I feel that some routers offer the option to disable it (uncrippling the performance) in order to not do false advertising. Unless you are in a rural area, it is hard to fine an area where your router will automatically choose to use a 40MHz channel width, this means that for most people, they will never enjoy the full speed of their router.
Is it legal to market market a router as doing 450 Mbps on the 2.4GHz band if it would never actually achieve that PHY rate due to artificial restrictions?
What about in areas were the 2.4GHz band is already screwed? e.g., if I launch inssider V2, the counter quickly goes up to over 250 access points (95% of which are on the 2.4GHz band), 20/40 coexistence is not going to do much good here, the channels are already congested like crazy.
Beyond that, there are still many single stream WiFi radios in mobile devices (some allow for 40MHz mode), without 40MHz channel width, you will get poor performance (unable to take advantage of even the 3rd world country style of broadband that we have in the US).
It is legal. They don't promise those speeds. They state their hardware can attain them.
I advocate that my customers read 'ad speak' when comparing products with their 'specs'.
That is why I always recommend to test, in their own environment, the top two or three choices they are considering. Theory and practice do not always come together in the best interest of the consumer.
For the legality, I meant it more as if it is legal if the product cannot attain the advertised PHY rate due to a manufacture level crippling. For example, if nvidia tried to advertise their GTX 970 as having 2048 CUDA cores instead of 1664, it would be considered false advertising, even though the GTX 970 and the 980 have the same GPU, but some of the cores, ROPS, L2 cache sections, and crossbar ports are disabled. Just because the components are there, does not mean they can advertise the product as having them if they cannot be used by the user.
Another example, is the AMD Readeon R9 290, it has the same GPU as the 290x, but they never advertise it as having the same specs, even though the hardware is physically there, and with a bios hack, you can literally unlock the disabled cores and turn it into a 290x (since not all of the 290s are GPUs that were binned lower. The fact that some people can unlock their card does not mean that AMD can suddenly advertise the R9 290 as having better specs even though those who were able to unlock their cards, were able to get an instant 7-10% performance boost.
For a router, if you cannot cannot disable 20/40 coexistence, then it means that the company will be advertising functionality that probably 99% of the population would be unable to use even if they have the hardware to use it.
It would be like a company selling you a 3000 square foot, 4 bedroom house but 3 of the bedrooms are filled from floor to ceiling with cement. At that point, can they really advertise it as a 4 bedroom house?
For example, in my extremely congested WiFi environment, I still see a speed improvement with forcing the router to use 40MHz mode.
it is the router not reaching its own full potential in its given environment due to software crippling below the advertised specs.
The main thing that I am getting at is can they advertise a feature or specification the vast majority of users are unable to use it due to intentional software crippling?
For example, in my extremely congested WiFi environment, I still see a speed improvement with forcing the router to use 40MHz mode.
For the house analogy, the idea is can ha house be advertised as a 3000SqFt, 4 bedroom home be advertised as such, if the company selling the house decided to fill 3 of the rooms (and about 1000SqFt)of space with cement (thus you are unable to use that space), is the potential existence of that space enough to not be false advertising?
The issue is not a router performing like other competing ones, it is the router not reaching its own full potential in its given environment due to software crippling below the advertised specs.
For the 20/40 coexistence, I see it more as a feature to get a good burst of performance when you need it. 40MHz mode does have its trade-off, for most routers, the transmit power often drops by upwards of 50% when in 40Mhz mode, thus reducing range, but for the range that it does cover well, you get a good speed boost.
by forcing 40mhz if the router has forced co existence you are just sticking your finger up at the neighbours and saying i will do what i want no matter the consequences and who it effects , but hell who cares about them anyway
40MHz in 2.4GHz WiFi is .. like .. the 500Watt amps and 18 inch speakers in the car 100 feet from yours.
But if that amp'd car is rarely driven, well OK.
Thread starter | Title | Forum | Replies | Date |
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Samsung S22 Ultra and 160 MHZ | General Wi-Fi Discussion | 6 |
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